In her recent paper Shakespeare, Guy of Warwick, and Chines of Beef,
Katherine Duncan-Jones discusses the ‘Philip, sparrow’ passage in King
John (see my previous post), and concludes that if the Bastard’s
‘sparrow’ reference in the passage is an allusion to Guy of Warwick,
then that play must 'ante-date King John, and cannot be later than
the mid-1590s'. I want to make the brief point here that while this conclusion
is perfectly reasonable, it’s not necessarily correct.
King John is usually dated 1595-6 and
must have existed by 1598 at the latest (when Francis Meres mentioned it in Palladis
Tamia), hence Duncan-Jones’s conclusion that if this passage in King
John is an allusion to Guy, then the latter 'cannot be
later than the mid-1590s'. The problem with this is that it implicitly
assumes that performances of King John in the mid-1590s
actually contained the ‘Philip, sparrow’ passage, and this is by no means certain.
The only record of the play we have is the text in the First Folio, and how
closely this text matched actual performances in Shakespeare's time, we have no
idea.